BigJ
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Fair enough for me.
Thanks for taking all the time, Ming.
Thanks for taking all the time, Ming.
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I don't really want to stir the pot (again), and I should probably take the cue from Ming, but...
I do have to admit I'm a bit confused by Mark's example; I'm not entirely sure how having a daughter equates to out and out lying on an application. Does the application, in your example, have the questions (1) Do you have a daughter and (2) Regardless of whether or not you currently have a daughter, do you agree that no daughter of yours will ever ever drive the insured vehicle? If he answers are (1) No and (2) Yes, and he in fact does have a daughter who did in fact drive the insured vehicle, now I think now we have a fair parallel between your example and the case I linked too.
But I'm not sure thats important anyway; I think you're focusing on the wrong issue Mark. Specifically, the contract language says "no mods" (paraphrasing). Just like Nationwide's insurance says "no mods".
So while you seem to be focused on the he-didnt-tell-his-insurance-he-had-mods issue, I think whats more important is that he was screwed no matter what; even if he had coverage before adding the mods, then added them after being approved for coverage, he would have been denied. The only difference would have been 'why' the insurance company chose to deny him.
Bottom line was the insurance company had a few choices when it came to denying this guy's coverage. The fact that they chose the former reason does not invalidate the fact that they could have chosen the latter reason (and still might try the latter if the former is thrown out in court).
And that, at least as far as I'm concerned, is the entire point of this discussion.
ming said:You need to be straight with the company because it *is* about the mods, and no amount of spin on the ball will change that. We want the opportunity to evaluate the risk and come to a decision. Deny a company that opportunity and your coverage is in jeopardy. Period.
I really REALLY don't want to kick this hornet's nest again, but something just came to my attention that needs to be posted here.
In short:
(1) dude1 applies for insurance, answering "No" when asked if the vehicle has been "modified". He in fact did have a lift kit and oversized tires installed at the time.
(2) dude1 runs over dude2 and messes up dude2's foot.
(3) dude2 files a claim with dude1's insurance.
(4) dude1's insurance rescinds his policy, returns his premium, and refuses to defend the claim based on dude1's misrepresentation regarding his "modified" truck. They left him hanging wide open, exposed and totally on his own.
(5) left on his own, dude1 eventually settles with dude2 personally, and agrees to pay dude2 $350k out of his own pocket.
(6) dude2 then sues dude1's insurance for not covering dude1. At this point, due to the terms of the settlement with dude2, dude1 is totally out of the picture. This is now an issue between dude2, and dude1's insurance.
(7) the trail court finds dude1's insurance should not have denied the claim, and the insurance company is ordered to pay over $460k to dude2 as a result. This is in addition to the money already paid to dude2 by dude1.
(8) dude1's insurance appeals the decision
(9) the appellate court finds that in fact dude1 had "modified" his vehicle, and that his insurance was within their right to rescind the coverage AFTER THE ACCIDENT AND NOT PAY THE CLAIM FOR THAT ACCIDENT. The $460k ruling was overturned.
Moral of the story? There's now case law on the books that not only sets a precedent for insurance companies to throw you on your arse after the fact without covering you if you misrepresent yourself on the app, but it also defines that misrepresentation as "modified" to at least mean lifted and with larger tires.
Not good. Not good at all.
http://www.boehmbrown.com/hotcases/hotcase.asp?idhotcase=477
A couple of questions that I still do have are (1) what about "modifying" after the insurance form is filled out and (2) did the insurance company have to prove the misrepresented mods contributed to the accident?
I have to believe there's verbiage in the contract that makes the question about before/after irrelevant. Lawyers aint dumb.
As for (2)... that one freaks me the most, and it strikes at the heart of our discussion. If in fact your insurance company DOES NOT have to show your mod (aka swaybar removal?) had anything to do with the accident, that's really bad news. What I've read about the case sure seems to indicate it just didn't matter if the mod contributed or not; rather what mattered was the dude misrepresented himself, and in doing so the insurance company was able to point at that breech and get out of the contract.
In the end, this case proves to me none of this is fear mongering or "boogiemen"... this is now case law that cost a guy $350k (at least) and cost another guy over $460k... and maybe worse than all of that is the fact that its set a precedent.